Question category: Cardiology
A 68 year old male presents with severe central chest pain. He is found to have ST elevation in the anterolateral leads. A primary PCI is performed and a stent inserted. He is then found to be hypotensive at 70/40 with a few bibasal crepitations. Heart sounds are pure. A central line is inserted and his pulmonary artery wedge pressure is 12 mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?