Question category: Rheumatology
A 25 year old male presents with pain and swelling in the left knee. He is also complaining of low back pain and malaise. He has also noticed that it has been painful when he is urinating. He has recently had unprotected sex. A joint aspiration does not culture any microorganisms but there is elevated neutrophils. He is intolerant to NSAIDs. Which of the following is the next most appropriate management choice?